Piperette
Proud Mummy to 2 Boys
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- Sep 15, 2009
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Hi,
I was wondering if someone could please help with a problem I have.
I have a UK contract, which states I have 25 working days leave entitlement per calendar year. It then states in the next paragraph that "payment will be made for any holidays not taken at the time of termination of employment, with effect from 1st January".
I am therefore assuming that if I hand in my notice and haven't taken all my accrued holidays, I will be paid any holidays owed with my final pay. Now someone has mentioned to me that the employer can force me to take this holiday in my notice period. Is this correct? Surely with the clause above in my contract they can't just do things as they please?
Any help would be much appreciated.
I was wondering if someone could please help with a problem I have.
I have a UK contract, which states I have 25 working days leave entitlement per calendar year. It then states in the next paragraph that "payment will be made for any holidays not taken at the time of termination of employment, with effect from 1st January".
I am therefore assuming that if I hand in my notice and haven't taken all my accrued holidays, I will be paid any holidays owed with my final pay. Now someone has mentioned to me that the employer can force me to take this holiday in my notice period. Is this correct? Surely with the clause above in my contract they can't just do things as they please?
Any help would be much appreciated.