karolynca
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So here I sit reading all the papers I was handed in my first appointment due to my "advance maternal age" (I am 39). I am quoting something the information about the risk of down syndrome says
"While there is a link between maternal age and the occurrence of trisomies, most babies with Down syndrome are born to mothers under the age of 35. This is due to the fact that there are far more younger women having babies. In fact, 80% of babies born with Down syndrome are born to women younger than 35 and the average age of a mother of a baby with Down syndrome is 28 years. Overall, the likelihood of a woman under age 30 giving birth to a child with Down syndrome is less than 1:1000. The risk increases as a woman gets older, with an incidence of about 1:112 at 40 years of age. However, this is still less than 1%."
So overall incidence is 2% in the entire world population and still advance maternal age is less than 1%. When the vast majority of the cases are in women under the age of 35 and the average age is 28 years. I know the incidence is higher due to maternal age but can somebody explain to me why on earth they make it sound like due to age you are off the chart? I mean the incidence may be higher but that's because there are less babies born in that age range however still the percentage is less than 1% the same as any woman any other age
I think the more I read the more I just think this is some type of huge "data analysis" missunderstanding or worst
I am so ready to ask some direct questions in my "advance maternal age" consultation
"While there is a link between maternal age and the occurrence of trisomies, most babies with Down syndrome are born to mothers under the age of 35. This is due to the fact that there are far more younger women having babies. In fact, 80% of babies born with Down syndrome are born to women younger than 35 and the average age of a mother of a baby with Down syndrome is 28 years. Overall, the likelihood of a woman under age 30 giving birth to a child with Down syndrome is less than 1:1000. The risk increases as a woman gets older, with an incidence of about 1:112 at 40 years of age. However, this is still less than 1%."
So overall incidence is 2% in the entire world population and still advance maternal age is less than 1%. When the vast majority of the cases are in women under the age of 35 and the average age is 28 years. I know the incidence is higher due to maternal age but can somebody explain to me why on earth they make it sound like due to age you are off the chart? I mean the incidence may be higher but that's because there are less babies born in that age range however still the percentage is less than 1% the same as any woman any other age
I think the more I read the more I just think this is some type of huge "data analysis" missunderstanding or worst
I am so ready to ask some direct questions in my "advance maternal age" consultation