Another question - Posted this in 2nd tri but think it'd be better here...
Where do you think I stand on this?
If I was allowed to go semi-part-time (ie. reduced from 37 to 30 hours for 2.5 months and reduced from 37 to 22 hours for 3 months) and asked at the time about taking a pay cut, but received no response, and therefore carried on receiving my full time wage (Which wasn't that much anyway). I did work later and at home if required also and had the same level of workload whether I was fulltime or parttime...
Can this be used against me at a later date for refusal of a payrise?
If I had had my pay cut at the time, I would've more than understood. However, I don't think it can be used later for reasoning against a payrise...
Am just asking as I think my boss is using this as an excuse to not give me the payrise that she gave every other member of staff, but want to check my rights before I speak to her.
Where do you think I stand on this?
If I was allowed to go semi-part-time (ie. reduced from 37 to 30 hours for 2.5 months and reduced from 37 to 22 hours for 3 months) and asked at the time about taking a pay cut, but received no response, and therefore carried on receiving my full time wage (Which wasn't that much anyway). I did work later and at home if required also and had the same level of workload whether I was fulltime or parttime...
Can this be used against me at a later date for refusal of a payrise?
If I had had my pay cut at the time, I would've more than understood. However, I don't think it can be used later for reasoning against a payrise...
Am just asking as I think my boss is using this as an excuse to not give me the payrise that she gave every other member of staff, but want to check my rights before I speak to her.